The big question from an interesting article from Slate today:
Seems like a no-brainer to me, but it's not a matter I've really thought about before. However, as I understand it, unless I'm way off-base, in most if not all of the US, if a guy fathers a child (sperm donors excepted), and the woman decides to keep it (i.e., neither abort nor give it away), the guy will be legally required to pay some amount of child support until said person's eighteenth birthday.
Heck, I've, uh, risked fathering an unwanted child a few times, never without protection, but said protection wasn't 100% effective. And, for the sake of discussion, one of the women involved could hypothetically have have, er, gone around said protection after the fact, and gotten herself pregnant without my assent, and afterward claimed not to know anything more than I did about the conception. Was I risking eighteen years of child support in these cases? I'm not certain, but probably, yes, in which case the woman would have had 100% of the say in the matter. Doesn't quite seem fair, does it?
I respect a woman's right to privacy in medical procedures. But maybe, in order to ensure fairness, fathers of fetuses should have to sign "fatherhood agreements" in order to be on the hook for child support? A binding, non-revocable statement that, should the woman have the child, he'll take his share of responsibility for it?
Discuss.
As a thought experiment, I tried to imagine I was having an irresolvable conflict with a man over an accidental pregnancy. I told Conley I just don’t see a compromise: It has to be the woman’s choice.
He said, “Then the man shouldn’t be responsible for the baby.”
He said, “Then the man shouldn’t be responsible for the baby.”
Heck, I've, uh, risked fathering an unwanted child a few times, never without protection, but said protection wasn't 100% effective. And, for the sake of discussion, one of the women involved could hypothetically have have, er, gone around said protection after the fact, and gotten herself pregnant without my assent, and afterward claimed not to know anything more than I did about the conception. Was I risking eighteen years of child support in these cases? I'm not certain, but probably, yes, in which case the woman would have had 100% of the say in the matter. Doesn't quite seem fair, does it?
I respect a woman's right to privacy in medical procedures. But maybe, in order to ensure fairness, fathers of fetuses should have to sign "fatherhood agreements" in order to be on the hook for child support? A binding, non-revocable statement that, should the woman have the child, he'll take his share of responsibility for it?
Discuss.
