There is no connect between who the timevillain is and what sort of damage he does, though. Somebody from the deep past could come and destroy the timeline, or somebody from the deep future could do that. And the timecops wouldn't even have any means of knowing who the villain is, not until they do a lot of footwork with their own time machines!
Let's simplify the scenarios as much as possible... Let's have three distinct timepoints where the villain of unknown origin alters the past:
T1 = before the founding of the DTI, say, in the 12th century
T2 = after the founding of the DTI but before the DTI gets time machines of some sufficient potency level that makes them comfortable with facing all adversaries, say, in the 25th century
T3 = after the DTI gets omnipotent, say, in the 34th century
Let's also say that the meddling not just makes the timevillain wealthy and powerful but also objectively does damage, say, with the villain enslaving everybody and torturing them thrice every afternoon. It's a present the DTI is not happy with.
Let's also say that the altering does not erase the DTI out of existence altogether. They still have time machines. They just notice that the Federation is currently being ruled by a guy who tortures everybody by reading them chapters of his book "How I Reduced the DTI from Timecops to Losers Who Have to Clean Toilets With Their Tongues or be Whipped to Death, With Just One Audacious Time-Tampering Trick".
Now, casual reading of history books (including that one!) reveals that this tampering trick was performed at timepoint T1, T2 or T3. Which of these are actionable by the DTI?
Or does it depend on where/when exactly the DTI awakens to the situation? (Feel free to label this timepoint with the T1/T2/T3 nomenclature)
Or does it depend on where/when exactly the villain comes from? (Again, T1/T2/T3)
What does it depend on?
Timo Saloniemi
Let's simplify the scenarios as much as possible... Let's have three distinct timepoints where the villain of unknown origin alters the past:
T1 = before the founding of the DTI, say, in the 12th century
T2 = after the founding of the DTI but before the DTI gets time machines of some sufficient potency level that makes them comfortable with facing all adversaries, say, in the 25th century
T3 = after the DTI gets omnipotent, say, in the 34th century
Let's also say that the meddling not just makes the timevillain wealthy and powerful but also objectively does damage, say, with the villain enslaving everybody and torturing them thrice every afternoon. It's a present the DTI is not happy with.
Let's also say that the altering does not erase the DTI out of existence altogether. They still have time machines. They just notice that the Federation is currently being ruled by a guy who tortures everybody by reading them chapters of his book "How I Reduced the DTI from Timecops to Losers Who Have to Clean Toilets With Their Tongues or be Whipped to Death, With Just One Audacious Time-Tampering Trick".
Now, casual reading of history books (including that one!) reveals that this tampering trick was performed at timepoint T1, T2 or T3. Which of these are actionable by the DTI?
Or does it depend on where/when exactly the DTI awakens to the situation? (Feel free to label this timepoint with the T1/T2/T3 nomenclature)
Or does it depend on where/when exactly the villain comes from? (Again, T1/T2/T3)
What does it depend on?
Timo Saloniemi