It was probably a plot hole.
It either is or it isn't.
There is no probably.
So in other words, you’re okay with the concept of a wormhole that sends people over 100 years back in time, but the idea that it also transports travelers in space is just… too much? How does this explain Nero and Spock ending up in different places?
They said black hole. As far as transportation through space the movie doesn't say that occurred.
No, I mean in order for Romulus to have been destroyed before Hobus was stopped or any substantial evacuation attempt was completed, while Federation or Klingon losses were conspicuously not even mentioned, it would most likely have been in Romulan space. Let’s see what STO’s “Path to 2409” has to say about it:
You're using your Trek knowledge, not movie knowledge and you're trying to stitch the two together. They never said any of this in the film.
Isn’t it interesting that I came to the same conclusion before even reading that?
I don't find irrelevant data interesting when it encourages assumptions that I can't logically make. You can believe this if you want but what we see in the film is in strict contradiction...
Another misstatement of the plot. They’re piling up. The Klingon ships were not destroyed in a Neutral Zone. They were destroyed in the vicinity of a Klingon prison planet ( Rura Penthe ) in Klingon space.
wow....
okay, well, I would hate to deprive you of the justification to gloat...but the Movie doesn't say that the attack was in the vicinity of Rura Penthe. In fact it never uses the name. It says...Prison Planet....and...it says a transmission was intercepted from the planet concerning said armada.
...and...
It's not the plot, it's an event within the plot.
The correction is confirmed and accepted. However Kirk making the connection between Kelvin and Klingon attack is suspect.
The Elements of Kirk's Connection
Lightning Storm: One at 25 years ago on Klingon Boarder/ The other occurring in the Neutral Zone. (which one?)
Romulans: Romulan attacks a Federation starship/ Romulans attack Klingon Armada 25 years later.
Vulcan: Has seizmic disturbance. (why does this require a fleet of ships) Neutral Zone implied proximity to Vulcan but only one Neutral Zone mentioned in the film.
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Okay...so where is the connection for these three events that allow us to deduce that a big bad Romulan ship is attacking vulcan? A lighting storm is such a vague description and 25 years removed. If your contention is right then the location are COMPLETELY unrelated.
Then Romulan attack? What was special about the Romulan attack? Is this the last time the Romulans attacked. Do Romulans not attack and there for unusual?
And what does seismic disturbances at vulcan have to do with Romulans or lightning storms? Kirk literally connects the Kelvin's attack at the edge of Klingon Space 25 years ago with an attack "last night" with ONE sentence... which according to YOU was in a completely different area....How?
Spock calls this "sound logic" but where is the connection with any of these events that you can determine anything "logical" from? You've got the gloating thing going so why don't you "enlighten me" since this all makes so much sense to you. (formal request)
Even if you pretend that Path to 2409 does not exist, you cannot prove that they did emerge next to the Hobus star, and thus the idea is nothing more than unsupported speculation, which cannot be used as a legitimate case against Nero’s actions.
Proof, no.
Logic yes, to which you have neither.
First, the online script refers to the “Klingon Neutral Zone” in the Kelvin sequence. The use of this nomenclature would seem to imply that “Neutral Zone” on its own is not quite specific enough as an obvious reference to the KNZ, because of the other Neutral Zone that we know of. In fact, when the term “Neutral Zone” was used in TNG, it pretty much always referred to the Romulan Neutral Zone, and there’s really no particular reason to assume that STXI is using the term differently. Also, Starfleet’s apparent assumption of a connection between the anomaly in the Neutral Zone and seismic activity on Vulcan seems to indicate a degree of relative spatial proximity, just as we saw with Vulcan and the Romulan Neutral Zone in TNG’s Unification.
This isn't TNG.
This is Star Trek 2009. And in Star Trek 2009 Delta Vega is in the Vulcan system not on the edge of the Galaxy. So now what?
More importantly the movie NEVER gives you any indication of more than one Neutral Zone. So on the one hand NuTrek almost completely abandons continuity but on the other hand expects people that may have never have seen TOS, TNG or DS9 to know that there is a ROMULAN Neutral Zone? So...in the simulations why were Klingons in the Neutral Zone that's for the Romulans? I mean I think I asked this before....
Well, which is it? It sounds like you’re trying to have it both ways. ( The solution to the riddle is that you’re not really sticking to the narrative. )
Both ways? Firstly in Repetition: The Film never says ROMULAN NEUTRAL ZONE
Secondly. I wasn't talking you. (bottom quote was to Daniel) If it was misquote.sorry. What NARATIVE from the film says "Klingon Neutral Zone?" because while you're busy assuming my misunderstanding of the movie you're assuming some battle took place near Rura Penthe and imagining the name occurs in the film narrative.
Nowhere in the film is the above shown or even implied. It's nothing more than a figment of your imagination.
That's a pure confidence statement.
It's your opinion. I'm fine with that.
But the implication is a direct result of the character's scattered-brained actions through out the film...to which there was no rhythm or reason to despite his statements otherwise. You can believe what ever you want. I'll not contradict how you see it but you're APPROACHING ME as though your position is factual and you're not finding the hard evidence from the film to back up your assertions, nor any logic. You're using your "Trek-ology) which you assume is valid in this film despite contradictions. You're using the script which is a rather amusing admittance that key information is missing from the movie...and here we are discussing plot holes.
Completely false. These things were adequately explained and made sense to many viewers.
Argumentum ad populum
Sorry. As I told Number6, consensus doesn't buy you logic.
He didn't have the red matter yet, which was already explained in the previous thread, to no apparent effect. Baffling, eh?
Argument from Repeition
No counter argument was really made because of the further
fallacy of thinking that because he did not have a magical potion that he could not take any action at all. Thus I and the blogger remain validated with the observation that he
"twiddled his thumbs"
I hope not… because I was the one who suggested it. That the film does not show this happening on screen does not necessarily mean that it did not happen. The film’s failure to show you something you wanted to see does not constitute a real plot hole.
That's not a good excuse nor any sort of answer.
If it doesn't show events then they didn't happen.
That's why they're called plot holes...
That's why it's called
story-telling, not story-guessing.
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But I've enjoyed the debate immensely. It's nice to stretch the ole noggin in a pitch logic debate.
Star Trek as a franchise isn't "necessary" - what's your point?
What's yours?
Yeah... well... you know that in Star Trek the ships don't actually move but bent... no... warp the space around them to reach their destination... except when they actually do move...
Oh well, it's Star Trek.
Actually they do move. It's not space folding. Their method of movement merely cheats the laws space and time. At the very least the particles of the upper atmosphere should have been induced to warp even as the warp field collapsed. Have we seen this before...no of course not but they've never had this sort of budget before and they could have shown a really awesome effect. They just chose something simple...It's not a big deal but it's that Trek at least didn't go out of its way to wrong effects.