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Phantom Menace is the best Prequel.

I think he was thinking that all people who use the Force belong to the same group

That's how I used to interpret it. Since the term "Sith" was never mentioned and we didn't get a whole lot of information about the Jedi, I just figured a Jedi was somebody with Force powers, and Tarkin assumed Vader (and possibly the Emperor) was the last one left.
 
I read a post here that seemed to indicate that someone wasn't sure if Dooku knew about Palpatine's true identity. Of course he knew about it.

I agreed it was likely (or rather more likely than that Darth Maul knew his true identity), but can you prove it? Did Dooku say or do anything that directly proves it? (Yes, I already cited the line about the Senate being under the control of Darth Sidious, here.)
 
I read a post here that seemed to indicate that someone wasn't sure if Dooku knew about Palpatine's true identity. Of course he knew about it.

I agreed it was likely (or rather more likely than that Darth Maul knew his true identity), but can you prove it? Did Dooku say or do anything that directly proves it? (Yes, I already cited the line about the Senate being under the control of Darth Sidious, here.)


well, he gives that shocked look of betrayal to Palpy before he's killed.(kind of dumb considering the way he knows the Sith work)
 
^ Yeah, that seems like about enough. That actually was enough for me on first viewing. But I'm sure some still won't buy it.

It's been said before, but I'll say it again. It's nice and all that the Sith are about deception and stuff, but does the damn narrative have to suffer from that problem too?
 
Lucas talked about what Dooku thought the plan was and it was mentioned in Labyrinth of Evil.

Basically, if Dooku defeated Anakin, then it would mean Anakin wasn't ready and they would let him stew a couple of years. If Anakin got the upper hand, Palpatine told Dooku he would step him and put an end to the duel.
 
How can they be extinct if Vader is still a jedi? The line can only be true if Vader was once a Jedi that forsaken their ways for that of the Sith.

Well, he does say their "fire as gone out", which by definition means extinct, or no longer active.

I'm just throwing this out as a possibility. I think it's pretty obvious from at least the first film that Vader was still considered some sort of a Jedi since nobody had figured out what Sith means.

And I don't think they had planned on the Emperor being a Sith at this point.
 
Or perhaps he meant "step in". We may need the assistance of a more experienced spelling nazi to make a call on this one. :rolleyes:

Okay, fine. Although I have denounced the Nazi ways.

I believe what DarthPipes meant to say is "If Anakin got the upper hand, Palpatine told Dooku he would step on him and put an end to the duel."
 
Imperial High, Class of 3263827:

imp-dig-3.jpg
 
TremblingBluStar said:
Yes you did. You said it in your post right here:
Yet the Sith ruled the galaxy in those films. Thus it appeared in the OT. So if two Sith ruling the galaxy is stupid, then the OT is stupid, and the PT merely consistent with the stupidity of the OT. Oh, the pain...

No, that says something completely different. Where in the above is there anything about "the moronic rule that there can only be two Sith is a flaw of both series because it was introduced in the prequels and the prequels take place chronologically first"? First of all, you're changing the subject to the rule itself as opposed to your "two Sith can't rule the galaxy" objection to it, which was the subject I was talking about. Where did I say anything about "the prequels take place chronologically first"? Where did I say the issue was a flaw of both series "because it was introduced in the prequels" ( which makes no sense )? I didn't In fact, I specifically said the exact opposite - that it was a flaw of both series because it first appeared in the OT. So you're just replacing my actual position with a nonsensical rewrite that has nothing to do with it.

TremblingBluStar said:
While I applaud your ability to say something absurd and then turn around and deny saying it in the very next paragraph

Except, in reality, I did no such thing. You discarded my actual statement, presumably because it was more difficult to question than the "absurd" and "moronic" one which you replaced it with. This accomplishes nothing, other than in continuing to highlight your determination to shamelessly misrepresent my positions.

Ghrakh said:
The pain of trying to figure out if you actually watched the OT.

Don't worry, you'll figure it out eventually.

Ghrakh said:
Who were they, if not part of the Sith? (And please don't reference the EU or wookiepedia or any of that, what matters is what's shown or implied in the movies.)

It's not "shown or implied in the movies" that those people were Sith ( a term not used in the OT films ). You're using a perverse form of circular logic here. It's only your speculative and ultimately baseless assumption that they must be Sith, an assumption which happens to be debunked in the EU.

Ghrakh said:
Vader in SW was in command of a single mission: to retrieve the DS plans. Tarkin was in charge of the military, and all the DS's operations and strategy. The Emperor was portrayed more as a distant political figure. Vader was just the top SS guy as it were.

In TESB, Vader was in command of a command ship with a fleet of SDs to hunt down the rebels, and also to get Luke. I seriously can't believe that a single fleet of SDs is enough to "rule the galaxy".

In ROTJ, same thing. Remember Han's line "There are a lot of command ships". Vader wasn't on all of them was he? No, again he was a part of a larger story.

That is completely immaterial to the allegation that two Sith would not be enough to rule the galaxy, which the OT disproves. The Emperor is the ruler of the Empire, and as such it is evident that one Sith is enough to rule the galaxy ( the second Sith being about continuation of the order ). There were no other darksiders depicted in the OT, and no indication whatsoever that any more would be required.
 
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First of all, you're changing the subject to the rule itself as opposed to your "two Sith can't rule the galaxy" objection to it, which was the subject I was talking about.
I was confused about your meaning. I was not changing the subject or trying to misrepresent your meaning. We are having a discussion here, not running a political race.
Where did I say anything about "the prequels take place chronologically first"? Where did I say the issue was a flaw of both series "because it was introduced in the prequels" ( which makes no sense )? I didn't In fact, I specifically said the exact opposite - that it was a flaw of both series because it first appeared in the OT. So you're just replacing my actual position with a nonsensical rewrite that has nothing to do with it.
But again, it did not first appear in the OT. There was no mention of Sith in the OT, other than novels. Thus there was no reason to believe in the OT that "the Sith rule the galaxy".

Further, if the Sith ruling was such an important thing for the Emperor, why did he not mention the Sith at all in the OT?
 
But again, it did not first appear in the OT. There was no mention of Sith in the OT, other than novels. Thus there was no reason to believe in the OT that "the Sith rule the galaxy".

But again, it did appear in the OT. A darksider was in charge of the Empire. Thus, "two Sith can't rule the galaxy" contradicts the OT, because we know the Sith are darksiders. If the Emperor can rule the galaxy, then a Sith can rule the galaxy.

TremblingBluStar said:
Further, if the Sith ruling was such an important thing for the Emperor, why did he not mention the Sith at all in the OT?

Maybe because he was already ruling?
 
But again, it did appear in the OT. A darksider was in charge of the Empire. Thus, "two Sith can't rule the galaxy" contradicts the OT, because we know the Sith are darksiders. If the Emperor can rule the galaxy, then a Sith can rule the galaxy.

We didn't now the Sith were darksiders when the OT was coming out. We didn't know there were only two Sith. We didn't even know the Emperor was a Sith until the very end of RoTJ.

I don't see why you are dragging out a single minor nitpick I had with the PT to such absurd lengths.
 
Strangely enough the Ewoks and Wicket aren't named in ROTJ either yet people knew what they were from the start. The fact that the Sith even Palpatine's name wasn't mentioned in the OT is kind of besides the point to me. :shrug:
 
We didn't now the Sith were darksiders when the OT was coming out.

But we knew the Emperor and Vader were darksiders, and they were in charge.

TremblingBluStar said:
We didn't know there were only two Sith.

Irrelevant. We knew no more Sith were necessary to run the Empire. This isn't about the rule, it's about your nonsensical objection to it, which the OT contradicts.

TremblingBluStar said:
We didn't even know the Emperor was a Sith until the very end of RoTJ.

Was the very end of ROTJ a prequel?
 
Irrelevant. We knew no more Sith were necessary to run the Empire. This isn't about the rule, it's about your nonsensical objection to it, which the OT contradicts.

I never said there were more Sith needed to run the Empire. I said it's silly to say the "Sith rule the galaxy" when there are only two in a galaxy of a bazillion individuals.

And since there was no mention of this in the OT it can hardly be called a flaw of the OT anymore than saying midichorians are flaws of the OT since we see people can use the Force in that trilogy.
 
I never said there were more Sith needed to run the Empire. I said it's silly to say the "Sith rule the galaxy" when there are only two in a galaxy of a bazillion individuals.

Same thing.

TremblingBluStar said:
And since there was no mention of this in the OT it can hardly be called a flaw of the OT

The OT showed a darksider ruling the Empire, thus it is a "flaw" of the OT.
 
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