^The South a land under occupation? You have  got to be kidding me. It's been how many years since the Civil War? This  is the 21st century. The country has moved on. We have other issues  now.
		
		
	 
So, presenting a conquest in terms of it being a 
feit accompli endows it with legitimacy?  Moral authority flows from the barrel of the gun?
I love how some people continuously deride the US for "imperialism" in  it's international relations, but don't seem to mind it as much when it  is directed at it's own citizenry.
Tying that back into Trek, the Bajorans had that problem too, witness  the actions of people like Kai Winn and her supporters in the  Provisional Government.
	
		
	
	
		
		
			And... I'm struggling to connect this to the topic.  Um, was Cardassia's occupation ever legally recognized by the UFP or  other powers in the area?
		
		
	 
Tacitly, yes.  The Federation did nothing but set up refugee camps.  It  never offered the Bajorans any sort of military assistance nor did it  act to legitimize a "government in exile" for the Bajorans.
  
  
	
		
	
	
		
		
			
	
		
	
	
		
		
			Certainly.  I've viewed the South as a land under occupation for many  years.  Secession was the legal right of the states under the 9th and  10th Amendments, and the North had no legal justification for using  force of arms to prevent their utilizing that right.
		
		
	 
  
  The problem with this argument is that the Constitution is unclear on  whether or not secession is a legal right of the states. If the South  were serious about pursuing a legal justification for secession, they  would have taken it to the Supreme Court 
before unilaterally  seceding,
		
 
		
	 
Not according to the Constitution as written.  9th and 10th Amendments reserve all powers not 
explicitly  granted to the Federal gov't to the states, and from there to the  people.  Secession was well understood prior to the Civil War as a  state's right.  At least three states (NY, RI and VA) explicitly  reserved the right to secede in their ratification of the Constitution.
And it only makes logical sense that the states had that right.  After  all, the US itself was founded on secession.  The term "Revolutionary  War" is not accurate. 
We also have to consider that the CW was not the first secession crisis  in the US.  Maine seceeded from Massachussets.  There was a call for New  England secession during the War of 1812.
And most hypocritically of all (on the part of the North/Union), there  is the formation of West Virginia, which seceeded from Virginia itself  and joined the Union.
If the Union did not recognize secession, then how can it admit a state seceding from another state?
And yes, before someone brings it up, I am aware of the 
Texas v. White decision.  That 
post War  decision was made in direct contravention to the law and the plain text  reading of the Constitution.  The SCOTUS does that sometimes when it  suits the purposes of those who control the court.
	
	
		
		
			and not have attacked Fort Sumter whilst in the middle of  negotiations with the Lincoln Administration over its fate. By any  reasonable standard, the South was the aggressor in the Civil War.
		
		
	 
First of all, that only shows Lincoln for the two faced liar that he  was.  On the one hand, he supposedly denied the right to seceed, but he  was 
negotiating with SC.  By doing so, he recognized the legitimacy of the Confederate government 
of SC.
Oh, and the firing on the fort?  Happened because the S Carolinians  caught the North trying to sneak reinforcements into the fort.
So it was a Cuban Missile Blockade situation.  By attempting to "cross the line", the North made the first aggressive move.
 
 
	
		
	
	
		
		
			Can I ask why you think the Nazi's would have defeated Russia. Support  provided by the North Sea coveys were minimal. The winter of 1941 which  stalled the Russian advance would still have happened. Yes perhaps it  would have lasted longer, But given the sheer size of Russia and the man  power it could bring, the fact that the Nazi's didn't have any heavy  bombers to attack the factories located deep in Russian terrority. Would  mean that the Russians could keep bringing more and more tanks/planes  etc.. Whilst resources avalable to Nazi Germany would continue to  dwindle. Their cities/factories being bombed by the RAF.
		
		
	 
So the Nazi's would have fallen to the Russians...then Europe would have  been conquered by the Russians.  The only reason Russia joined the  Allies was that Hitler stabbed them in the back.  Russia was originally  an 
Axis power.
Germany or Russia, either way Europe was screwed w/o the US.