In general draftees make poor soldiers compared to volunteers.
This is untrue. Consider this: in an all-volunteer military, is the force composed of a cross-section of society, or are those most likely to be successful underrepresented in its ranks? A recruiter who has supervised the administration of the ASVAB (Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Batter) tends to find that the center of mass of the students interested in military service is lower than that of the population who took the exam - and that the highest-scoring students are the least likely to become soldiers. Since the start of the Iraq War, we have reduced the standards of admission to the US Army; is there any reason our standard's couldn't have remained higher if we had a conscripted force?
Note that I don't argue for a draft, only that a draft produces better soldiers on average if the size of the Army remains the same. The military ceases to be the domain of the underprivileged, and is escaped by no one.
I was in the ROTC in college, but I never served on active duty. I'm opposed to the draft for two reasons. (What follows is only applicable to American law, which is my current field of study.)
The first is that I believe the draft is unconstitutional in principle. The 13th Amendment prohibits "involuntary servitude" except as punishment for a crime. While I'm well aware that courts haven't agreed with me, if being drafted isn't involuntary servitude, I don't know what is.
The logic used by the Supreme Court in this matter is very reasonable. The Northwest Ordinance of 1787 proscribed slavery in the Northwest territory with the following language:
"There shall be neither slavery nor involuntary servitude in the said territory otherwise than in punishment of crimes whereof the party shall have been duly convicted."
The similarity of this language to that of the 13th Amendment is striking. The Amendment reads:
"Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction."
In 1799, the legislature of the Northwest Territory passed an act which required two days work on the territorial road system by every male citizen over 21. It used the following language:
That all male persons of the age of twenty-one years, and not exceeding fifty, who have resided thirty days in any township of any county within this territory, who are not a township charge, shall, over and above the rate of assessment hereinafter mentioned, be liable, yearly and every year, to do and perform two days' work on the public roads, under the direction of the supervisor within whose limits they shall be respectively residents.
This law was accepted by Congress and by the Executive, and was unchallenged by any citizen of the territory. The service it requires is clearly involuntary, but it would not reasonably be considered involuntary servitude.
Why? Because service and servitude are not equivalent terms, despite their common origin in the Latin
servus (slave). "Service" comes to us from Old English, in which it described religious devotion (i.e. devotion so complete as to be a willing slave to the holy). Eventually, it came to refer to the work done in observance of that devotion, and today refers, in this sense, only to work done for something or someone other than oneself. It maintains, in formal usage, a sense of ultimate benevolence.
"Servitude," in contrast, has arrived almost intact from the Late Latin
servitudo (a condition of slavery), passed into Middle English through Old French (
servitude). The word's modern meaning is "the state of being a slave." "Slave" is formally defined as either "a person who is the legal property of another and is forced to obey them" or "a person who works very hard without proper remuneration or appreciation." I don't think it could be argued that a soldier is either of these.
The second reason I'm opposed is that I believe it's unconstitutional in practice. Even if the 13th Amendment argument fails, there's a reasonable 14th Amendment argument that it denies men the equal protection of the laws. (Since men are subject to the draft and women are not.) Sex discrimination laws are analyzed under what is called "intermediate scrutiny", which basically means that the law must be substantially related to an important government goal. I'm unaware of any cases specifically on point, but I could easily see this failing. (While the goal of having a properly staffed military likely will qualify as important, I doubt that a male-only draft would qualify as substantially related.) Intermediate scrutiny is a really fuzzy area of constitutional law, though, so it's unclear how a case would come out.
You almost certainly have a point, though an argument relying on the 14th Amendment argument is invalid (because the 14th Amendment applies only to the states). An argument against sex discrimination by the Federal government must rely on the 5th Amendment. The relevant clause is this Amendment's "due process" statement, which reads:
"No person shall . . . be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law"
The Court decisions in
Frontiero v. Richardson,
Califano v. Jobst, and several other cases have applied this clause to prohibit discrimination on the basis of sex - which is, by its nature, conducted without due process of deprivation at trial. In
Frontiero, a case which prohibited sex discrimination in the disbursment of military dependent benefits, the Court wrote:
"The sex characteristic frequently bears no relation to ability to perform or contribute to society. As a result, statutory distinctions between the sexes often have the effect of invidiously relegating the entire class of females to inferior legal status without regard to the actual capabilities of its individual members."
The case further established that due process concerns ajudicated under the due process clause of the 5th Amendment are subject to the "strict standard" test, not the "intermediate standard" of judicial review which applies to the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment. (This has not been overturned, but that may be a simple case of the distinction between the standards having been overlooked.)