Now I was playing D&D the other night when our group was presented with this riddle:
It's a basic cup and ball scenario. Three cups and a ball hidden under only one of the cups. We pick one cup that we think the ball is under.
The npc lifts one of the cups and reveals that there is no ball under is under it and gives us the option to change our guess. What the npc wants to know is due to the odds would it be more logical to change your answer.
The answer is apparently yes it is better to change your answer because it gives you a 2/3 chance of getting the right answer.
... Now that seems very very wrong to me
you have three cups and each has a 1/3 chance of having the ball
0 0 0
1/3 1/3 1/3
Now when you are shown that one cup does not have a ball it doesn't give you any hint to where the ball actually is. I think the dm mistook 2/3 as the odds when 2/3 is the amount of cups you get to choose... and even if you stick with the same answer you have 2/3 of the cups.
AND since you know 100% that one of the two cups you "chose" is incorrect that means that 1/3 of that 2/3 is null so you have two 1/3 chances (i.e 50% chance)
I mean the cup and ball game is randomized so there is no way changing your answer would affect the outcome as there is just as much a chance of you changing your answer to the wrong answer as ther is of changing it to the right.
Anyone else agree?
It's a basic cup and ball scenario. Three cups and a ball hidden under only one of the cups. We pick one cup that we think the ball is under.
The npc lifts one of the cups and reveals that there is no ball under is under it and gives us the option to change our guess. What the npc wants to know is due to the odds would it be more logical to change your answer.
The answer is apparently yes it is better to change your answer because it gives you a 2/3 chance of getting the right answer.
... Now that seems very very wrong to me
you have three cups and each has a 1/3 chance of having the ball
0 0 0
1/3 1/3 1/3
Now when you are shown that one cup does not have a ball it doesn't give you any hint to where the ball actually is. I think the dm mistook 2/3 as the odds when 2/3 is the amount of cups you get to choose... and even if you stick with the same answer you have 2/3 of the cups.
AND since you know 100% that one of the two cups you "chose" is incorrect that means that 1/3 of that 2/3 is null so you have two 1/3 chances (i.e 50% chance)
I mean the cup and ball game is randomized so there is no way changing your answer would affect the outcome as there is just as much a chance of you changing your answer to the wrong answer as ther is of changing it to the right.
Anyone else agree?