Crazy Eddie said:
If you don't know the writer's intent, then the writer's intent is not important. If, in your attempt to determine the writer's intent you discover that he actually didn't think that far ahead when he was writing it, then the writer's intent remains unimportant.
Of course, we
do know the writer's intent in this case, and it was made somewhat obvious in the film, so luckily there's no need for any heroic grail quest to "attempt to determine" the truth. ( But if someone
did happen to go on such a quest, would that person by any chance somehow "discover that he actually didn't think that far ahead when he was writing it", in a silly bit of self-fulfilling prophecy intended as justification for ignoring intent? Who can say? )
Crazy Eddie said:
No, it hasn't. This is the part where you assert something as fact as though the assertion somehow proves itself. A collection of "maybe", "probably" and "seems like" doesn't get you there. And then there's the problem of explicit author intent that keeps rearing its head: the writers responsible for the comics have said what their position is. It's not credible to argue that they retconned something if their own words show that they had no intent to do so.
Crazy Eddie said:
And for the first time in Trek history we are dealing with a timeline whose main characters are native to the new timeline and are NOT, in fact, time travelers responsible for its creation.
Spock Prime isn't a "main character"? Who cares? You're really suggesting that whether or not a character has the coveted "main character" status determines whether or not the timeline he ends up in is in the same continuity as the timeline he left?
Crazy Eddie said:
That's EXACTLY what it means, since nothing that happens in the Primeline has causal power over the alternate universe, and vice versa.
So what? Where are all these imaginary rules coming from? The point is that both timelines exist in the same multiverse, which makes them part of the same continuity on a macroscopic level. Besides, you only
assume that nothing taking place in the Prime timeline can affect the Abramsverse in the film era; given that this is ST we're talking about, I think that is far from certain. It is possible that unusual anomalies such as the Nexus could be used to travel between the timelines.
Crazy Eddie said:
Because the Abramsverse isn't influenced by events in the primeline.
It was
created by events in the Prime timeline. I'd call that influence.
Crazy Eddie said:
He can no longer return to his point of origin
We don't know for certain that there is no way for him to return ( but what can be assumed is that using red matter black hole time travel would not cut it because it would be expected to act as before and create yet another timeline ).
Crazy Eddie said:
For all intents and purposes, they DIED in the primeline
However, they did
not die in the Prime timeline. It seems as though "for all intents and purposes" is being used here as a tool which somehow makes false statements true.
Crazy Eddie said:
because from his point of view it no longer exists.
This is simply false. He has no reason to assume that the Prime timeline ceased to exist just because he went into the black hole ( in fact, to do so would not be logical ). If what you mean is just that "he can't get back" so "for all intents and purposes" it no longer exists, just because you can't get to a place does not mean that the place in question has ceased to exist. In this context the value of "for all intents and purposes" is exactly nothing.
Crazy Eddie said:
They are NOT part of the same continuity, in this case; in fact, this is literally an example of a DIScontinuity
Using the word "discontinuity" does not serve as an argument that things are not in the same continuity. If you can follow a character's adventures from one universe into another, the two universes are in the same continuity. Or at least that is the sense in which I am using the term "continuity".
Crazy Eddie said:
And yet, having Michael Keaton make a cameo as "the first batman" would not have made "The Dark Knight" a sequel to "Batman Returns," nor could we assume that Heath Ledger was playing Jack Napier's demented illegitimate son.
Continuity doesn't work that way.
Another failed analogy, so soon? The Nolan films
could have been established as sequels to the Keaton movies if they had been intended as such and designed that way, but they weren't.
Batman Begins made that impossible ( unless you believe Wayne's parents were magically resurrected to get them ready for a second death ).
Crazy Eddie said:
Strictly speaking, "Star Trek" in 2009 wasn't a sequel to Nemesis or Insurrection any more than it was a prequel to TOS.
Apples and oranges. ST09 was never intended to be a TOS prequel, given that it is in an alternate timeline. However, it is in fact a sequel to
Nemesis in terms of its Prime timeline content and from Spock Prime's perspective.
Crazy Eddie said:
It is out of direct continuity with BOTH of them in every meaningful way
Its
entire plot results from events taking place after Nemesis in the Prime timeline. How is that not "meaningful"? Or is "meaningful" just another one of those words that magically gets you everything you want?
Crazy Eddie said:
except to make some of the more die-hard fans feel better about the reboot.
Always asserted as fact, never proven. Probably because it's just something disgruntled fans always say which happens to be nothing more than speculation. On a related note, it's not a reboot, despite the fact that some people insist in calling it one.