Yes. We know the writer was interpreting time travel in the context of a multiverse in which Spock and Nero traveled to an alternate timeline that already existed. The extent to which those two universes were identical up to that point is not something the writers actually specified, mainly because -- stylistic/subtle differences or not, it doesn't REALLY matter to the story.Crazy Eddie said:If you don't know the writer's intent, then the writer's intent is not important. If, in your attempt to determine the writer's intent you discover that he actually didn't think that far ahead when he was writing it, then the writer's intent remains unimportant.
Of course, we do know the writer's intent in this case
Subsequent writers have ignored this intention, which is the other point you seem to be ignoring. Landru, for example, is not an alien-developed AI and is instead a Section 31 black op; Kor has brow ridges, Klingons have cloaking devices, and the Gorn are aliens from another galaxy.
See above.Crazy Eddie said:It already has.
No, it hasn't.
From the typical definition of "continuity" in which one event logically follows from another in a predictable and understandable way.So what? Where are all these imaginary rules coming from?
In this case, they do not. The new timeline exists because of something Nero did after he arrived IN it. Events in the 24th century primeline do not affect the alternate timeline and it now stands on its own: they no longer share a history.
It's a pretty safe assumption, unless someone decides that the Abramsverse isn't an alternate timeline and is actually a stylized prequel to TOS after all.Besides, you only assume that nothing taking place in the Prime timeline can affect the Abramsverse in the film era
Exactly how they manage to reconcile that in universe would be amusing to see.
Incorrect. It was created by events in its OWN timeline. Nero had already departed the primeline when he fired on the Kelvin.It was created by events in the Prime timeline.
They fell into a black hole and ceased to exist altogether. That's a distinction without a difference.However, they did not die in the Prime timeline.
True. He can assume it ceased to exist primarily because Nero destroyed Vulcan; none of the events of the prime timeline that SpockPrime remembers can actually happen now.Crazy Eddie said:because from his point of view it no longer exists.
This is simply false. He has no reason to assume that the Prime timeline ceased to exist just because he went into the black hole
So from his point of view, the old timeline ceases to exist.
It's a question of definition, really.Crazy Eddie said:They are NOT part of the same continuity, in this case; in fact, this is literally an example of a DIScontinuity
Using the word "discontinuity" does not serve as an argument that things are not in the same continuity.
Somebody draws two parallel lines coming out of a box, and you want to call them "perpendicular" because they're joined by the box.
But they're not perpendicular and therefore are not part of the same segment. They're parallel. Meaning "side by side." Meaning they are not part of the same continuity. They are part of a larger construct that is the "Star Trek" multiverse, but they are not continuous; for the first time in history Star Trek now has MULTIPLE continuities existing in parallel.