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do you beleve the story of the birth of christ

Considering the bible was EDITED by males some three centuries after the supposed events of the New Testament, and that the Apocrypha contains just as many equally credible (or not) books which could have been included, the bible is a rather indiscriminate work with a number of inconsistencies between books.

--Ted

This is muddled in several respects.

1. The NT's "editing" is well known. That's why we have a science called text criticism. It does not therefore follow that the text we have is "corrupt." In fact, this is evidence that the compiled MSS we have are extremely reliable, so that we can reconstruct an extremely good facisimile of the original.

2. You're confused over the Apocrypha. The Apocryha is an element of the LXX. No two versions of the LXX are the same in their contents with respect to the Apocryphya. This is a problem not for Protestants, rather it is a problem for Roman Catholics and the Orthodox, who disagree over the content of the Apocrypha.

3. The reason the Apocrypha is a problem for them is that they regard it as canonical. Protestants sometimes read it the way Jerome read it. That's not an issue.

4. You seem to be confusing "Apocrypha" with "Deuterocanonicals" and the Gnostic works.

5. Apropos 4, the Gnostic works are only relevant if you assume, without benefit of argument, that the proper lens via which to read the NT is not Second Temple Judaism, but is, instead Subapostolic Period Gnosticism. That's not a problem for anybody except the Jesus Seminar people - a very distinct minority whose views fall further into disrepute with every passing moment.

It seems like some of the folks who write this stuff on this board live in a state of self-reinforcing ignorance about this material all the time.
 
It's actually more likely that Jesus was the illegitimate son of a Roman soldier.

No, you're thinking of Brian.

No--we know that Brian's father was a Roman soldier: the centurion Naughtius Maximus, of the 6th Legion (Legio VI Ferrata).

Frank, the Historian Who Wasn't A. J. P. Taylor At All, was planning a book on the subject before his untimely death during the making of Monty Python and the Holy Grail.

My bad. :)
 
Considering the bible was EDITED by males some three centuries after the supposed events of the New Testament, and that the Apocrypha contains just as many equally credible (or not) books which could have been included, the bible is a rather indiscriminate work with a number of inconsistencies between books.

--Ted

This is muddled in several respects.

1. The NT's "editing" is well known. That's why we have a science called text criticism. It does not therefore follow that the text we have is "corrupt." In fact, this is evidence that the compiled MSS we have are extremely reliable, so that we can reconstruct an extremely good facisimile of the original.

2. You're confused over the Apocrypha. The Apocryha is an element of the LXX. No two versions of the LXX are the same in their contents with respect to the Apocryphya. This is a problem not for Protestants, rather it is a problem for Roman Catholics and the Orthodox, who disagree over the content of the Apocrypha.

3. The reason the Apocrypha is a problem for them is that they regard it as canonical. Protestants sometimes read it the way Jerome read it. That's not an issue.

4. You seem to be confusing "Apocrypha" with "Deuterocanonicals" and the Gnostic works.

5. Apropos 4, the Gnostic works are only relevant if you assume, without benefit of argument, that the proper lens via which to read the NT is not Second Temple Judaism, but is, instead Subapostolic Period Gnosticism. That's not a problem for anybody except the Jesus Seminar people - a very distinct minority whose views fall further into disrepute with every passing moment.

It seems like some of the folks who write this stuff on this board live in a state of self-reinforcing ignorance about this material all the time.

I call "bulls***"
 
False, each side has its own burden of proof to discharge. In this case, we have the NT narrative to disprove as well as the claims of the SubApostolic writers. The skeptic must disprove the authenticity of the NT narratives and argue against the Subapostolic writers.

This is such an uninformed idea. Or I should "unformed." Thank FSM no one other than creation scientists believes this or we would still be living in caves. Proving a negative is impossible, of course, and it's such a transparently silly thing to try. God lives in my shed. He's invisible, and he loves to listen to the Coasters. Do you have a "burden of proof" to show that I'm wrong? According to your reasoning, all the thinking people in the world who care about these things should have to debunk my religion, and until they do I'm completely rational when I say "He Is Real and he knows all the words to "Searchin'"

Isaac Asimov once said "I don't have the evidence to prove that God doesn't exist, but I so strongly suspect he doesn't that I don't want to waste my time." This perfectly sums up it up.


I've been dealing with this argument for a long time too.

1. This is trying to apply the rules of formal debate to the issue at hand. That's obviously fallacious. Where's the supporting argument - oh, that's right, there is none, because it's just "obvious."

2. The position that "There is no God" is not convertible with the statement, "The VB did not occur." One is a philosophical idea, the other involves a historical claim.

3. Apropos 2, you're making a category error. That's a SECOND logical fallacy.

4. Indeed, you're begging the question, a THIRD fallacy.

5. If you're going to claim that the VB did not occur, then it is incumbent upon you to provide a competing explanation. It is also incumbent upon you to address the historicity and reliablity of the relevant NT texts and the claims of the Subapostolic Fathers.

6. The position that "God does not exist" is itself a positive claim, for negative presupposes a positive statement of the same position - but I guess that never crossed your mind. No, instead you rely on tactics best used by Village Atheists, tactics so overused and often refuted that it's apparent you're trying to avoid the discussion,not engage the discussion. Apparently, if there were a village of atheists, you'd actually be the Village Atheist.

7. If you're going to claim that belief in God or the VB is "irrational" it's up to you to demonstrate your case, not merely assert your case.

For example, if you're going to argue for atheism vs. theism, to take just one example, here's a helpful list of what you actually do have to discuss:

http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/05/atheism-in-balance.html

Sorry, you can't just say, the onus is on somebody else.

So, how many fallacious arguments have you offered within one paragraph? I'll leave it to you to count them. Try again.
 
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Considering the bible was EDITED by males some three centuries after the supposed events of the New Testament, and that the Apocrypha contains just as many equally credible (or not) books which could have been included, the bible is a rather indiscriminate work with a number of inconsistencies between books.

--Ted

This is muddled in several respects.

1. The NT's "editing" is well known. That's why we have a science called text criticism. It does not therefore follow that the text we have is "corrupt." In fact, this is evidence that the compiled MSS we have are extremely reliable, so that we can reconstruct an extremely good facisimile of the original.

2. You're confused over the Apocrypha. The Apocryha is an element of the LXX. No two versions of the LXX are the same in their contents with respect to the Apocryphya. This is a problem not for Protestants, rather it is a problem for Roman Catholics and the Orthodox, who disagree over the content of the Apocrypha.

3. The reason the Apocrypha is a problem for them is that they regard it as canonical. Protestants sometimes read it the way Jerome read it. That's not an issue.

4. You seem to be confusing "Apocrypha" with "Deuterocanonicals" and the Gnostic works.

5. Apropos 4, the Gnostic works are only relevant if you assume, without benefit of argument, that the proper lens via which to read the NT is not Second Temple Judaism, but is, instead Subapostolic Period Gnosticism. That's not a problem for anybody except the Jesus Seminar people - a very distinct minority whose views fall further into disrepute with every passing moment.

It seems like some of the folks who write this stuff on this board live in a state of self-reinforcing ignorance about this material all the time.

I call "bulls***"

Why don't you offer a counterargument for once instead of characterizations and assertions. Are you even capable?
 
5. If you're going to claim that the VB did not occur, then it is incumbent upon you to provide a competing explanation. It is also incumbent upon you to address the historicity and reliablity of the relevant NT texts and the claims of the Subapostolic Fathers.

You keep saying this and it keeps being ridiculous. When making an unfounded claim based on nothing legitimate --especially a claim as outrageous as a virgin birth -- the only "competing explanation" necessary is "you have no evidence to prove your claim." And you don't have that evidence. Your reasoning makes any half-baked idea, any lunatic claim, just as valid as another.

6. The position that "God does not exist" is itself a positive claim, for negative presupposes a positive statement of the same position - but I guess that never crossed your mind.

Wow! That's a fantastically acrobatic sentence! I have to confess, that thought has never crossed my mind.:lol:


No, instead you rely on tactics best used by Village Atheists, tactics so overused and often refuted that it's apparent you're trying to avoid the discussion,not engage the discussion. Apparently, if there were a village of atheists, you'd actually be the Village Atheist.

I resist the assumption that I am an atheist. In fact, I am a follower of the Flying Spaghetti Monster (blessed be His Noodly Appendages). My faith is every bit as real and valid as Christianity until you fulfill your self-proclaimed obligation to prove me wrong.

7. If you're going to claim that belief in God or the VB is "irrational" it's up to you to demonstrate your case, not merely assert your case.

Your complete lack of evidence and the outrageousness of your claim is all the demonstration my case needs.

So, how many fallacious arguments have you offered within one paragraph?

I don't know, but every time you say "fallacious" I get a boner. Does that make me weird?
 
Here's a classic example of where skeptical argumentation regarding the virgin birth breaks down. It can't even get out of the gate. Skeptics typically demand evidence...well:

1. Where's the evidence that the church fabricated the VB after the fact?
2. Where's the evidence that his mother lied.

FYI, Number 2 is actually discussed in the AnteNicene literature. I might behoove some folks to actually look into how that was addressed before raising that objection. :rolleyes:

It might behoove you to actually read where he said "My guess would be..." and then stated his opinion about what he thinks probably happened. Kind of a different thing from stating it as fact, isn't it?

And how exactly would one go about finding proof that Jesus' mother lied about the circumstances of his birth? Is there a 2,000 year old HebrewTube video I'm not aware of that contradicts her story? Demanding nearly impossible standards of evidence to support an opinion doesn't exactly help your cause if you're trying to make a reasonable argument.

I believe there was a real Jesus, that he built quite a following, had many positive ideas to teach, and accomplished some great though not supernatural things. But I also think that the circumstances of his birth and many of his more amazing and supernatural achievements were greatly embellished by his followers and later scholars in order to fit the details of preexisting messianic figures in Hebrew (and other belief systems such as Mithras worship) lore.

That is not to say that there is no value in his teachings or in subsequent interpretations of his teachings by the way. The fact that I don't think he is the son of God doesn't mean you can't honor the spirit or wisdom of his teachings.

Thank you for this uterly inept post.

No, THANK YOU. That's mighty Christ-ey of you. I'm sure he would have wanted his followers to act as condescendingly as possible while spreading the word. Winning the hearts and minds and all that.

And really, nothing says "my belief is unshakeable" like jumping down the throats of people politely and respectfully offering their own opinions - not claimed as facts - when asked by the OP.

I actually told you how... by researching the AnteNicene literature. This objection is actually recorded in it. It is also an objection to which they responded. You might want to actually try to familarize yourself with the relevant literature before asking such easily answered questions. Give it a try, you may learn something.
Just because it raises the issue and predates the Council of Nicea doesn't mean these are contemporary accounts of the life of Jesus or prove either that Mary had a virgin birth or that she lied about a conventional birth. We're in no better position that we were before when you demanded ridiculous standards of evidence. If it's so easy to find, why don't you produce the relevant information since you're the one making the allegedly factual claim instead of stating an opinion? I don't have a library full of religious texts at my immediate disposal nor the inclination to read all of them to argue something that is inherently unprovable.

If you think that they were borrowing from Mithras worship, to take just one example, why don't you show us, chapter and verse which texts from which legends were borrowed. In fact, why don't you provide some evidence for us that these legends didn't borrow in the opposite direction. You see, the big gaping wide hole in that theory is simply this: the evidence we have postdates the NT narratives themselves.
Romans returning from suppressing revolts in Jerusalem in 60-70 CE were building shrines and making dedications to Mithras, meaning it was already preexisting in the region. Sounds pretty contemporary to me.

Mithradates II of Parthia (whose name signifies protection by Mithras) negotiated with Lucius Cornelius Sulla, Roman praetor of Cilicia in 92 BC, so obviously some contact with Mithraism happened then.

In his biography of Pompey in the 1st century CE, Plutarch wrote about the Cilician pirates: "They brought to Olympus in Lycia strange offerings and performed some secret mysteries, which still in the cult of Mithras, first made known by them." Pompey subdued those pirates in 67 BC.

But there are plenty of other pagan and Hebrew sources from which early Christians derived many of their traditions and stories, some predating them by quite a while.

So, can I rest with answering the OPs question with my opinion without the Inquisition busting my balls? Because debates about things I don't believe in and frankly don't care much about bore me. Unless it's unicorns. I fucking love unicorns.
 
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Unless it's unicorns. I fucking love unicorns.


Unicorns rock, I'm a Mermaid fan myself.

How much more impossible can it get?!? Virgin birth? Rising from the dead? Raising the dead? Feeding the multitudes? Ascending straight into Heaven? Is there any way it could be more impossible? I'd be interested in hearing how! Inconceivable!

All very possible for a being with advanced technology and the will to fool an entire race.(Well not the entire race)
 
I've been dealing with this argument for a long time too.

1. This is trying to apply the rules of formal debate to the issue at hand. That's obviously fallacious. Where's the supporting argument - oh, that's right, there is none, because it's just "obvious."

This claim is so full of mistakes I'm not even sure where to begin.

First, it confuses logic with the "rules of formal debate"--whatever those are. Logic consists of right reasoning--and right reasoning is always valid and applicable, no matter how formal or informal a discussion.

Second, a fallacy is an error in reasoning--not a misapplication of the rules of debate. There is no such thing as the "fallacy of applying the rules of formal debate to an internet discussion." There are formal fallacies--errors in the structure of arguments. And there are informal fallacies--errors in the use of language.

Third, your opponent does have a supporting argument: the same one I advanced in my own previous post. There is no need to disprove the NT narrative of the virgin birth. It disproves itself.

When it comes to miraculous claims, the burden of proof rests entirely with the claimant. The skeptic simply has to appeal to the uniformity of experience: the fact that the event reported was a miracle, i.e. an impossible event that violates the laws of nature. That's all the proof the skeptic needs. For as Hume said: "a uniform experience amounts to a proof."

Since my purpose here is primarily to vaccinate our audience against the mind-virus you're trying to spread, I'm going to expand on this point at some length.

Roughly speaking, there are three different types of testimony: untrustworthy; reasonably trustworthy; and absolutely trustworthy.

Similarly, roughly speaking, there are three types of events: ordinary events; extraordinary or marvelous events; and impossible or miraculous events.

Generally speaking, we should not accept untrustworthy testimony, even when it concerns ordinary events. If a person's testimony is usually false, then we would be unwise to rely on them even to tell us the time of day, or the weather outside. A uniform experience amounts to a proof--and our uniform experience of their untrustworthiness amounts to proof that what they say is likely not correct. It's up to the untrustworthy person to provide additional evidence to support their testimony.

But if we obtain reasonably trustworthy testimony to the fact that, for example, the time is noon, or that it's raining outside, most of us would consider the question settled. That's because, once again, a uniform experience amounts to a proof--and in our experience, no reasonably trustworthy person has ever made a mistake or been dishonest when reporting such an event. (Indeed, that's a requirement for being considered "reasonably trustworthy")

But even reasonably trustworthy people have been known to make mistakes when reporting unusual or marvelous events. In those cases, we require the testimony of an absolutely trustworthy person--someone who has never made a mistake, or lied. We believe their testimony, and accept it as proof, because it would be more unusual or more marvelous if they were mistaken or lying.

A good example of this would be the case of Phineas Gage. In 1848, the railway worker Phineas Gage was tamping a charge of gunpowder with an iron rod when the charge exploded, blasting the rod right through his head: it entered under the left cheek, and exited through the top of his skull, behind his right eye.

Incredibly, Gage survived this accident. But this story was widely disbelieved when it was reported in the press: people just don't ordinarily survive these types of traumatic injuries, and as we all know, newspaper reporters are only reasonably trustworthy, at best. It took the testimony of Dr. John Harlow, who had treated Gage, and who was considered absolutely trustworthy, to convince many people that the story of Phineas Gage was true.

Now: I'm sure you consider the authors of the NT narrative absolutely trustworthy. I do not. They may be reasonably trustworthy--but they do make mistakes. In Mark 2, for example, Jesus talks about how King David "went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and did eat the shewbread, which is not lawful to eat but for the priests, and gave also to them which were with him".

The problem here is that, according to 1 Samuel: 1-6, David did this in the days, not of Abiathar, but of his father, Ahimelech. So it seems that either Jesus made a mistake, or Mark made a mistake. A small mistake, to be sure, but enough to disqualify them from "absolutely trustworthy" status.

And in any case--it doesn't matter: for not even the testimony of an absolutey trustworthy person would be sufficient to prove a miracle. Even people who would ordinarily be considered absolutely trustworthy have been mistaken in such cases.

A virgin birth is not a freakish event that almost never happens, like a man surviving an iron rod being blasted through his head. If it were simply a marvelous event, then the testimony of an absolutely trustworthy person would be sufficient. A virgin birth is an impossible, miraculous event that never happens. "How shall this be," Mary asks the angel, "seeing I know not a man?"

To be considered reliable, reports of miracles must provide stronger proof of their own trustworthiness than the proof provided by the uniformity of experience.

It's not even sufficient that they provide miraculous proof of their own trustworthiness--for in such a case, the proofs would be equally balanced, and the only rational response would be to suspend judgment.

No--to be considered reliable, the NT narrative would have to provide proof of an even more miraculous nature than a virgin birth.

This it simply does not provide. And in the absence of this miraculous proof, the stronger proof--the uniformity of experience--must prevail.

To quote Hume once again:

There surely never was a greater number of miracles ascribed to one person, than those, which were lately said to have been wrought in France upon the tomb of Abbé Paris, the famous Jansenist, with whose sanctity the people were so long deluded. The curing of the sick, giving hearing to the deaf, and sight to the blind, were every where talked of as the usual effects of that holy sepulchre. But what is more extraordinary; many of the miracles were immediately proved upon the spot, before judges of unquestioned integrity, attested by witnesses of credit and distinction, in a learned age, and on the most eminent theatre that is now in the world. Nor is this all: a relation of them was published and dispersed everywhere; nor were the Jesuits, though a learned body supported by the civil magistrate, and determined enemies to those opinions, in whose favour the miracles were said to have been wrought, ever able distinctly to refute or detect them. Where shall we find such a number of circumstances, agreeing to the corroboration of one fact? And what have we to oppose to such a cloud of witnesses, but the absolute impossibility or miraculous nature of the events, which they relate? And this surely, in the eyes of all reasonable people, will alone be regarded as a sufficient refutation.

Emphasis added.

If you're going to claim that the VB did not occur, then it is incumbent upon you to provide a competing explanation. It is also incumbent upon you to address the historicity and reliablity of the relevant NT texts and the claims of the Subapostolic Fathers.

No, actually: it isn't.

If you're going to claim that the Virgin Birth did occur, then it's incumbent on you to prove the miraculously trustworthy nature of your sources.

Good luck with that. As we have already seen, the Gospel writers can't even be relied upon to cite the Old Testament with absolute accuracy.
 
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5. If you're going to claim that the VB did not occur, then it is incumbent upon you to provide a competing explanation.
Normal conception. ;)

Sorry, you can't just say, the onus is on somebody else.
Yes, he can. The burden of proof is always on the one making the claim; and, as Sagan pointed out, extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.
 
what if the bible told you something impossible like jesus was blue or he could make his index finger light up or could make water into wine or make the blind see or walk on water? Would you believe then?

What if they gave him a cute little wise cracking yellow bird as a friend? Would you believe then?

"What if"? :lol::lol:

How much more impossible can it get?!? Virgin birth? Rising from the dead? Raising the dead? Feeding the multitudes? Ascending straight into Heaven? Is there any way it could be more impossible? I'd be interested in hearing how! Inconceivable!

OMG :eek: the evidence is mounting - someone found something I wrote humorous.
 
what if the bible told you something impossible like jesus was blue or he could make his index finger light up or could make water into wine or make the blind see or walk on water? Would you believe then?

What if they gave him a cute little wise cracking yellow bird as a friend? Would you believe then?

"What if"? :lol::lol:

How much more impossible can it get?!? Virgin birth? Rising from the dead? Raising the dead? Feeding the multitudes? Ascending straight into Heaven? Is there any way it could be more impossible? I'd be interested in hearing how! Inconceivable!

OMG :eek: the evidence is mounting - someone found something I wrote humorous.

I'm sorry--I'd need absolutely trustworthy testimony before I'd believe something like that.
 
Yes to the man who walked the same earth as you and I. Yes to a good man, with good words, who was killed for speaking out.

No to the biblical Jesus.
 
^^^The man who was killed for speaking out? In one passion narrative, Jesus, while on trial, makes a claim to be the Messiah, which supposedly is outrageous blasphemy, for which offense he is immediately condemned. I don't see how this is admirable, unless he really was the Messiah. But if it is admirable, the passion narrative where he is silent on the issue must not be admirable. Where then does that leave us? Wondering at the similarity of the Jesus and Stephen passion narratives, I think.

The New Testament is not sure when Jesus was executed, what the charges were, who ordered the execution (Pilate is the favorite of course, but why ever does Herod Antipas somehow crop up?) It is not certain who saw his resurrected body first, where it went and what it said. The New Testament purports to tell us things that human observers could not know, but cannot tell us things a divine observer would. The Gospels are unreliable as history.

It cannot be certain that there was a Jesus in any meaningful sense. It's like those versions of "Arthur" where he was not actually Arthur, but Ambrosius Aurelianus. Or perhaps he was actually Arthur (well, Artorius,) but he wasn't British, but a Sarmatian cavalryman. When we come to that pass, it makes no sense in my opinion to conced historical reality. What people care about in both cases are the stories. Neither set has historical foundation. Or Jesus could have been as historical as William Tell, also a storied figure. Taking Jesus seriously is like digging up Tyre looking for an ancient diving bell used in the siege, because the Alexander Romance tells us Alexander went to the bottom of the sea.
 
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