Deranged Nasat said:If I remember accurately, and I'm sure JustKate can confirm or correct this, the problem originated with prescriptive grammars during the time of Early Modern English. Latin rules of grammar were applied to English due to the prevalent belief that Latin was a pinnacle of linguistic achievement and English should emulate it, even though the rhythms of the two languages are in fact nothing alike. There are still people who frown upon certain constructions as poor grammar when the "rule" should probably never have been there in the first place, and simply doesn't fit the language.
That is my understanding as well. I mean, you could actually have the same people - I had English teachers do this very thing - saying "Split infinitives do not belong in Standard Written English" one minute and the next minute they'd hold up Shakespeare as one of the greatest writers of English (which of course he is). And Shakespeare, as well as lots and lots of other great writers, split infinitives whenever he felt like it. This dichotomy never seemed to bother the split-infinitive-haters, the poor schmoes.
I'm not sure exactly when the idea that there are times when infinitives ought to be split and times when they ought not be split became, "Thou shalt not split infinitives, at least not if thou wantest an A in my class." My recollection is that while some authorities started talking about it right around the time they first started issuing grammar books, it didn't become engraved on a stone tablet, Ten Commandments-style, and in turn on the hearts of so many rule-loving English teachers, until sometime in the mid- or late 19th century.
By the way, I just checked one of my favorite source books, Garner's Modern American Usage, and Garner specifically cites Star Trek and "to boldly go" as an example of a "justified split." So neener, neener, neener to my 9th grade English teacher! A dedicated woman who taught me a lot about grammar, but she did have a bee in her bonnet about split infinitives.
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