
No, because, 1. being ruled by a dictator is not the same thing as slavery
Well, when you consider the slave-like treatment of women in Islamo-Fascist societies such as Saddam's Iraq--and of course, said society's racist treatment towards Jews...suddenly the line seems blurred...doesn't it?
However, foreign societies do not have a right to interfere in their domestic politics unless that society has attacked foreign societies.
Hmm...outta curiosity...would you be willing to extend that statement to ”unless that society has attacked foreign societies...and/or provided safe haven for those who do"?
Again...just speaking theory.

I had a very long, drawn out answer to this quote written up, but because you've proven by your posts to be a remarkably well-informed and thoughtful individual I'll give you the benefit of the doubt in assuming that by the "right to freedom" you meant the "right to be a free citizen" and not "right to all personal freedoms whatsoever".
(ps I think the nadir of race relations in the US was from 1857-1865, stemming from the Dred Scott decision.)
It kinda was...that decision by the Supreme Court to force free states to return runaway slaves was, frankly, one of the worst decisions ever made by the Court--because it was an unfounded "re-interpretation" of the extradition clauses of the Constitution.
Kinda reminds one of Article 14, Section 31...wouldn't you say?