This place is built on sarcastic remarks. There are posters here don't contribute anything else.
Fact is, a lot of managers won't hire a woman or will pay her less because they think she'll get pregnant five minutes later and they'll have to pay her and her temporary replacement. Giving men equal parental leave by law means it's just as much of a "risk" to hire a man knowing his partner might get pregnant and it gives that man more time with his child.
It's win-win.
Agreed. But until that happens, this is much needed.
Um, you mean like the apparently non-existent Family & Medical Leave Act?
Covered employers must grant an eligible employee up to a total of 12 workweeks of unpaid leave during any 12-month period for one or more of the following reasons:
Q. Can I still use FMLA leave during pregnancy or after the birth of a child?
- for the birth and care of the newborn child of the employee;
- for placement with the employee of a son or daughter for adoption or foster care;
- to care for an immediate family member (spouse, child, or parent) with a serious health condition; or
- to take medical leave when the employee is unable to work because of a serious health condition.
A. Yes. An employee’s ability to use FMLA leave during pregnancy or after the birth of a child has not changed. Under the regulations, a mother can use 12 weeks of FMLA leave for the birth of a child, for prenatal care and incapacity related to pregnancy, and for her own serious health condition following the birth of a child. A father can use FMLA leave for the birth of a child and to care for his spouse who is incapacitated (due to pregnancy or child birth).
I've read studies in the past (don't have link) that women tend to take more sick days and miss work more frequently than men.
And of course there is maternity leave which normally isn't a male thing.
All of which are covered by other aspects of employment contracts (see "sick days" and "family leave"). They should have no bearing on hourly/yearly salaries.
Also, not all women take sick days or have children. I have taken 3 sick days in the past 4 years, have no children, don't like children, won't have children. I should not be paid less by default because other people with a similar set of chromosomes do.
That said, I do not have a problem with seniority rules that take into account amount of time actually worked. If two people have been at a company for 10 years doing the same job, but one has worked 20 hours a week and the other has worked 40, then the latter employee has produced more during his or her employment time and has therefore earned a bigger raise and more seniority than the former. Sorry to those who have a problem with that, but it's pretty cut-and-dried.
They can, as long as they're not offering the person with two X chromosomes $25,000 instead of $35,000 because she has two X chromosomes. Gender is not a "qualification" to be legally taken into consideration any more than race, religion, height, hair color or shoe size.Besides which, if a company has two people wanting a job, one is willing to work for 25 thousand a year and another wants 35 thousand, why can't the company hire the 25 thousand one?
What about at will jobs that don't have employment contracts???
What about them? Do they get paid time off? If they do, then that would constitute an "employment contract" or in other words and "agreement to terms of employment" which would render irrelevant your bullshit claim that it's ok for women to be paid less because they might use their paid time off. The horror!
Regardless, this act simply legthens the statue of limitations during which a woman can hold her employer accountable for discriminatory pay practices. She still has to prove that there is no other reason for her lower pay. It says nothing about having to give people merit raises without them meriting them and it doesn't shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff. If the employer can show that the woman in question is paid less than a peer due to inferior performance, poor attendence or any other non-having-a-uterus based reason, then they can pay her what her inferior work merits.
Do you have an actual cogent response to any of my points, or any of the other points in this thread, or are you just going to continue to make shit up and demonstrate a complete lack of knowledge about the new law?