This isn't anything revolutionary, granted... So the latest creative team partitioned off their version of Star Trek from the prime universe (generally speaking, the Universe in which Star Trek operated until their tenure) and the alternate universe, which their product operates in. You know the deal; Nero arrives via his special anomaly and off shoots a brand new Universe independent of the PRIME™ timeline. What were the conditions of this particular temporal event that make it distinct from all other temporal events that took place in the Prime timeline? By this, I am making the assumption that every temporal event observed in Star Trek prior to Trek ’09 occurred within the same Universe. Every trip back in time, alteration and fix-er-upper were all in the aforementioned PRIME™. The precedence set by time travel in the prime timeline would therefore preclude the theory explaining the current paradigm. It’s all well and good to point at quantum theory to back the point up, but that point, for consistencies sake (they are the keepers of the canon, yes?) ought to reverberate back to all iterations. Consequentially, there would be no Prime universe; every temporal event we have witnessed has resulted in an offshoot to another Universe which we subsequently observe. So the way I see it, there is either no PRIME™ (and never was), or the events of the past two movies are taking place within the Prime timeline. Whether it always happened from a particular POV… to quote The Doctor (Who)… “Wibbly wobbly timey wimey”. It ends up being a proper reboot. The Alternate Timeline in an Alternate Universe Theory is wholly inconsistent with all previous temporal events.