(Apologies if this has already been asked/answered.)
I've just started the Destiny trilogy and I have reached the part where the Columbia reaches Axion by accelerating normally using their impulse engines (their warp drive being broken), which due to time dilation (not a sci-fi concept, a real, measurable phenomena) means that the journey takes 68 days for them and 12 years on Earth.
I'm not unfamiliar with the concept (in fact I just finished a really good Reynolds novel, Pushing Ice, which used the same premise), but it still surprised me to see it showing up in a Star Trek novel, given that (televised in particular) Trek usually avoids any discussion of time dilation and relativity (two concepts that would be almost daily talking points if you really did work on a spaceship). This makes sense, since relativity is actually quite difficult to wrap your head around at the best of times, and also because I think if they did follow relativity, lots of the episodes would become completely unworkable.
So... I used to have the argument about Battlestar Galactica, that eached time they 'jumped', time on Caprica should advance by the amount of time it took light to go from wherever they were to wherever they ended up. Friends would say: "No, because they never 'accelerated', time dilation isn't a factor." I'd argue that it doesn't matter what mechanism you use to outpace light, the moment you have outpaced it, you have effectively time-travelled, and if they had the ability to outpace light they'd also have the ability to send messages backwards through time in order to prevent the original attack. The arguments would always devolve to a point where we'd be discussing the true nature of relativity and we'd get tangled in physics.
The problem with assuming that the warp drive from Trek or the jump drive from BSG somehow 'bypass' relativity is that they assume that there is some kind of 'universal' frame of reference that they are bypassing (in the case of Trek, this seems to be the advancement of time on Earth). But given that this isn't the case, does it have any meaning at all to say that, if I could appear on Alpha Centauri *now* (now being a somewhat more obscure term when dealing with relativity) without having to traverse the intravening distance, physics doesn't have a model for saying when I would actually arrive there.
Or, to put it another way: is time dilation a consequence of the process of accelerating, or a consequence of outpacing light by ANY means? And if the latter, is the depiction of the warp drive consistent with the modern day understanding on physics, assuming that subspace bypasses relativistic effects?
I've just started the Destiny trilogy and I have reached the part where the Columbia reaches Axion by accelerating normally using their impulse engines (their warp drive being broken), which due to time dilation (not a sci-fi concept, a real, measurable phenomena) means that the journey takes 68 days for them and 12 years on Earth.
I'm not unfamiliar with the concept (in fact I just finished a really good Reynolds novel, Pushing Ice, which used the same premise), but it still surprised me to see it showing up in a Star Trek novel, given that (televised in particular) Trek usually avoids any discussion of time dilation and relativity (two concepts that would be almost daily talking points if you really did work on a spaceship). This makes sense, since relativity is actually quite difficult to wrap your head around at the best of times, and also because I think if they did follow relativity, lots of the episodes would become completely unworkable.
So... I used to have the argument about Battlestar Galactica, that eached time they 'jumped', time on Caprica should advance by the amount of time it took light to go from wherever they were to wherever they ended up. Friends would say: "No, because they never 'accelerated', time dilation isn't a factor." I'd argue that it doesn't matter what mechanism you use to outpace light, the moment you have outpaced it, you have effectively time-travelled, and if they had the ability to outpace light they'd also have the ability to send messages backwards through time in order to prevent the original attack. The arguments would always devolve to a point where we'd be discussing the true nature of relativity and we'd get tangled in physics.
The problem with assuming that the warp drive from Trek or the jump drive from BSG somehow 'bypass' relativity is that they assume that there is some kind of 'universal' frame of reference that they are bypassing (in the case of Trek, this seems to be the advancement of time on Earth). But given that this isn't the case, does it have any meaning at all to say that, if I could appear on Alpha Centauri *now* (now being a somewhat more obscure term when dealing with relativity) without having to traverse the intravening distance, physics doesn't have a model for saying when I would actually arrive there.
Or, to put it another way: is time dilation a consequence of the process of accelerating, or a consequence of outpacing light by ANY means? And if the latter, is the depiction of the warp drive consistent with the modern day understanding on physics, assuming that subspace bypasses relativistic effects?