Some of those aforementioned theorists have argued (ironically, in my opinion) that technical vocabularies exist primarily to reinforce the social status and exclusivity of the groups that use them: that, for example, the 'discourse of mathematics' exists primarily to increase the status-authority of mathematicians.I'd say it's a different language, utilizing the same word list.
I'm not ordinarily a fan of such speculation. But based on what you've written here, I wonder if there isn't a grain of truth to what they say.
I cannot speak for other groups, but I don't think this is the case for mathematicians. Some might be overly fond of name dropping, using jargon where they could have sufficed with slightly simpler terms, but in general the language serves a specific purpose: to make precise unambiguous statements.
plain simple said:I'd hardly say that the definitions that logicians use are "loose and free". If anything they are strict and precise.
Ordinarily, I would agree with you. Just not in this case. Please note that I said "that word."
I don't think the word "therefore" is an exception, if anything the variety in meanings of the other words mentioned is reduced to fit with the (logical) meaning of "therefore".
But in reality mathematical logic usually deals not with "therefore" at all. It uses well defined symbols. "Therefore" might be used as a name or placeholder for one of these symbols for the ease of referencing it, but then the word gets its meaning (in logic) from the definition of the symbol, not from the Queen of England.
