Redemption Part 2 Question

[JediKnightButler]

In Redemption Part 1, Picard time and time again frets openly (especially to Worf) about getting the Enterprise (and by extension the Federation) involved in the Klingon Civil War- to the point that it forces Worf's hand, leading to his resignation from Starfleet so that he can fight in the Klingon Civil War. However, one of the first things that happens right at the start of Redemption Part 2 (and I think some time has elapsed) is Picard talking to a couple of Starfleet Admirals and making the case for..........Federation involvement in the Civil War. Not in a direct way, of course, but if I remember correctly he pretty much makes the same case for Federation involvement as Worf did at the end of Part 1- that the Duras Sisters are collaborating with the Romulans and that if the Duras Sisters win the Klingon Civil War that the Klingon Empire would essentially become an arm of the Romulan Empire with Toral as its figurehead. Anybody know of a way to square Picard's apparent change in attitude in RP2- or am I maybe not looking at it correctly?

 

[Oddish]

Picard was not interdicting in the KLINGON CIVIL WAR. He was interdicting against ILLEGAL ROMULAN INVOLVEMENT in said war. None of the Federation fleet ever fired on a Klingon ship, on either side.

 

[JediKnightButler]

Picard was not interdicting in the KLINGON CIVIL WAR. He was interdicting against ILLEGAL ROMULAN INVOLVEMENT in said war. None of the Federation fleet ever fired on a Klingon ship, on either side.

But isn't that sort of still involvement? No, the Enterprise didn't get involved with the Klingon Civil War or fire on any Klingon ships per se but they stepped in to expose/eliminate the advantage that one side had because of the Romulans.

 

[Oddish]

The Klingon Civil War itself was an internal matter, one that the Federation could not interfere with. Romulan interference was not internal, and therefore could be opposed.

 

[Mojochi]

Anybody know of a way to square Picard's apparent change in attitude in RP2- or am I maybe not looking at it correctly?

His attitude hasn't changed. He believes in the main tenet of the prime directive throughout, that no one should be involving themselves in the internal matters of Klingon society, such as a civil war.... not the Federation, nor its officers (Like Worf) nor any other external influences, such as the Romulans, who are motivated by disrupting Klingon society for their own benefit.

Therefore, not only is exposing or preventing Romulan involvement not interference in internal Klingon societal matters, it's actually taking steps to prevent others doing so as well, especially as Romulan disruption would mean destabilization of Federation/Klingon relations, & the balance of power in their realm.

The only reason it might even be a hard sell to the admiralty at all, is because it's a provocative move against the Romulans, that could've led to an active conflict. So, Picard wasn't making the same case as Worf. Worf was advocating backing Gowron, against the Duras, because the Duras were conspiring with Romulans. That IS involvement in the war itself. Picard was only advocating disrupting Romulan interference, & let the war sort itself out (Which would likely swing Gowron's way without Romulan interference)