Something I don't get about how the Prime Directive was treated in portions of the series (from TNG onward): Why does non-interference apply to advanced societies? The one specific instance I'm thinking of is not involving the Federation or Starfleet in the Klingon Civil War.
Here, you have one faction that has already demonstrated their desire to collaborate with the Romulans, and here you have a faction that has the legal right to lead asking for the Federation's assistance while warning the Federation that the faction that lost their legal claim to the Council will surely work with the Romulans to overthrow the Federation and without the Federation's help it seems likely that it will be the case. I mean...it seems like kind of a no-brainer.
This is not a case of preventing a primitive race from developing naturally, and it is not a case of providing knowledge or technology to a race that has not shown its ability to deal with it. This is the protection of the Federation, itself.
Why would that even be a thing???
Here, you have one faction that has already demonstrated their desire to collaborate with the Romulans, and here you have a faction that has the legal right to lead asking for the Federation's assistance while warning the Federation that the faction that lost their legal claim to the Council will surely work with the Romulans to overthrow the Federation and without the Federation's help it seems likely that it will be the case. I mean...it seems like kind of a no-brainer.
This is not a case of preventing a primitive race from developing naturally, and it is not a case of providing knowledge or technology to a race that has not shown its ability to deal with it. This is the protection of the Federation, itself.
Why would that even be a thing???