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Why didn't Spock and the others scream and collapse? (Spoiler)

gastrof

Rear Admiral
Rear Admiral
When Vulcan was destroyed?

Seems to me if the deaths of every Vulcan on the Intrepid was enough to make Spock react a good distance away on the Enterprise, if an entire worldful of Vulcans was destroyed, you'd think Spock, Sarek, and the others would have felt it and reacted.

JJ goof, or can "Trekkers fixit" solve this mystery?
 
In this universe, Vulcans all hate each other.

The drill causes transporter and communications interference when it's on, psychic interference when it's off.

ummm... nope, that's all I've got.
 
And what about Sarek? I mean, his bondmate just died, he wasn't prepared for that - I'd have loved for Sarek to have a bit of a more overt reaction than the one conveyed in his eyes when they all beamed up...
 
Their logic did not permit them to believe they were being killed. Whatever Spock meant by that in "The Immunity Syndrome".

Oops, wrong reality.


Getting used to the idea that all bets are now off in the Trek universe.
 
Because Spock needed to appear "emotionally uncompromised" until you-know-when.

It's also possible that the filmmakers wanted to avoid the appearance that they were ripping off the "great disturbance in the Force" scene in STAR WARS. Of course, we all know that Trek was there first, but, onscreen, it might have played out as a cliche imitation of that STAR WARS bit.
 
Their logic did not permit them to believe they were being killed. Whatever Spock meant by that in "The Immunity Syndrome".

Oops, wrong reality.


Getting used to the idea that all bets are now off in the Trek universe.

It's still not clear if this is a completely separate universe, or if it's the original with its history being overwritten as we speak.

If the latter, the connection should still be there.

Maybe what was said above is valid... They knew what was happening and were ready for it.

As for Sarek, he saw Amanda fall. Could have been enough notice for him.

Of course, I have an idea about that end of things which I'd love for them to use in the next movie. No comment beyond that.
 
It's also possible that the filmmakers wanted to avoid the appearance that they were ripping off the "great disturbance in the Force" scene in STAR WARS. Of course, we all know that Trek was there first, but, onscreen, it might have played out as a cliche imitation of that STAR WARS bit.

Well, they already ripped off the whole Ice planet-monster chase... and I also could have done without nearly every action/jump-scene screaming "Matrix"-like slowmotion.
 
It's a separate timeline. The original still exists; it has not been overwritten.


This claim has been made repeatedly, but without any solid proof given.

In all previous time-travel stories in TREK, changing the past has meant the ONE past of the Trek universe gets altered, and has to be FIXED in order to restore the original.

Why would this case be any different?

The only conclusion I can arrive at if the mainstream Trek universe still exists in the 24th century (and can someone give me proof positive that it still does? where is this said?), is that Nero and Spock were not only hurled back in time, but into an alternate reality.

This would explain a lot, including the Kelvin tech and internal look of the ship.

It was never the "original" Trek universe to begin with. What Nero's changing isn't his own timeline anyway, so NATURALLY the mainstream universe is intact. Nobody's messing with ITS past.

Then again, what if the changes we've seen are, in the overall scheme of things, so minor that it hasn't had any serious effect on 24th century Trek?

Maybe Picard went to see Sarek on NEW Vulcan. Maybe Tuvok's family was ALREADY living on the Vulcanis colony, and didn't die with Vulcan, Tuvok thus being born anyway.

This is why I say "It's not clear", because this could be the past being overwritten, or it could be an alternate reality to begin with, and so far the proof could be taken as meaning it's either.
 
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