I can't understand why a policy statement on the Greek situation. which most clearly raises the pertinent issues, is somehow irrelevant to characterizing the IMF. Which is still not a German controlled institution, anyhow.
I am not interpreting unlimited credit to recapitalize banks as Keynesian stimulus. Is it possible that when these figures talk more "mainstream" that's the tacit assumption? Trying to disguise that policy as Keynesianism?