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Old February 18 2013, 05:53 PM   #30
CorporalCaptain
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Re: That split infinitive we all love...

That reminds me of words probably incorrectly attributed to Winston Churchill, noted in the Wikipedia article on hypercorrection:
"This is the kind of tedious nonsense up with which I will not put!"
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On the question of how the Star Trek prologue was written, there's a Wikipedia article at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Where_n...as_gone_before. I'm not satisfied with the citations in it, though, one of which is a secondary source at http://www.cbc.ca/news/indepth/words/infinitives.html. That CBC article, which itself discusses the split infinitive issue, is a good read, but it's not written in a way that makes it unambiguously clear what it's getting from Inside Star Trek. Perhaps someone can confirm that the whole narrative of the evolution of the prologue in the CBC article [beyond just the first draft] comes from Inside Star Trek?

Anyway, if the narrative is accurate, then Shatner's diction had nothing to do with the wording. Roddenberry finalized the wording without Shatner's involvement to beat the deadline to get the opening credits in the can, then dragged Shatner in for the recording at the last minute.

Thinking back, though, I'm not 100% sure that every TOS episode aired besides Where No Man Has Gone Before had the prologue, at least in all their forms. I seem to recall that one or two more of the early episodes aired during syndication didn't have the prologue either. Can anyone help me settle that?
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